Revision as of 01:27, 15 June 2024 by Admin
BBy Bot
Jun 09'24
Exercise
[math]
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If [math]\mat{P}[/math] is a reversible Markov chain, is it necessarily true that the mean time to go from state [math]i[/math] to state [math]j[/math] is equal to the mean time to go from state [math]j[/math] to state [math]i[/math]? Hint: Try the Land of Oz example (Example).