Revision as of 21:33, 18 November 2023 by Admin (Created page with "'''Solution: C''' Since the annual effective discount rate is <math>3.2 \%</math>, the present value of an amount is calculated by multiplying it by a discounting factor of <math>(1-0.032)^t=(0.968)^t</math>, where <math>t</math> is the number of years since the deposit. At time <math>t=0</math>, an initial deposit of 50,000 is made just after the balance is 0 (the account is new just before the deposit). The withdrawals are then <math>X</math> at each of times <math>t...")
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Exercise


ABy Admin
Nov 18'23

Answer

Solution: C

Since the annual effective discount rate is [math]3.2 \%[/math], the present value of an amount is calculated by multiplying it by a discounting factor of [math](1-0.032)^t=(0.968)^t[/math], where [math]t[/math] is the number of years since the deposit.

At time [math]t=0[/math], an initial deposit of 50,000 is made just after the balance is 0 (the account is new just before the deposit). The withdrawals are then [math]X[/math] at each of times [math]t=2,4,6,8,10,12[/math] or equivalently at time [math]t=2 k[/math] for each whole number [math]k[/math] from 1 to 6 inclusive.

Then to make the final balance 0 , an additional withdrawal of 45,000 at time [math]t=12[/math] would be needed.

Since the net present value of the cash flows (withdrawals minus deposits) must be zero, in a time period from a zero balance to another zero balance, we have

[[math]] \begin{aligned} & 45,000(0.968)^{12}+X \sum_{k=1}^6(0.968)^{2 k}-50,000=0 \\ & 45,000(0.968)^{12}+X \sum_{k=1}^6(0.968)^{2 k}=50,000 \end{aligned} [[/math]]

Copyright 2023 . The Society of Actuaries, Schaumburg, Illinois. Reproduced with permission.

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