Revision as of 14:34, 20 November 2023 by Admin (Created page with "'''Solution: A''' The amount of the dividends does not matter, so they will be assumed to be 1 . First, calculate the Macaulay duration. The present value of the dividends is <math>v^4 a_{\infty}=1.1^{-4}(1 / 0.1)=6.83013</math>. The numerator is the present value of "payments" of <math>5,6,7, \ldots</math> starting five years from now. This can be decomposed as a level of annuity of 4 and an increasing annuity of <math>1,2,3, \ldots</math>. The present value is <math...")
Exercise
Nov 20'23
Answer
Solution: A
The amount of the dividends does not matter, so they will be assumed to be 1 . First, calculate the Macaulay duration. The present value of the dividends is [math]v^4 a_{\infty}=1.1^{-4}(1 / 0.1)=6.83013[/math]. The numerator is the present value of "payments" of [math]5,6,7, \ldots[/math] starting five years from now. This can be decomposed as a level of annuity of 4 and an increasing annuity of [math]1,2,3, \ldots[/math]. The present value is
[[math]]
v^4\left[4 a_{\infty}+(I a)_{\infty}\right]=v^4\left[\frac{4}{i}+\frac{1+i}{i^2}\right]=\frac{1}{1.1^4}\left[\frac{4}{0.1}+\frac{1.1}{0.1^2}\right]=102.452.
[[/math]]
The Macaulay duration is [math]102.452 / 6.83013=15[/math]. The modified duration is [math]15 / 1.1=13.64[/math]