BBy Bot
Jun 09'24

Exercise

Explain why it is not possible to define a uniform distribution function (see Definition) on a countably infinite sample space. Hint: Assume [math]m(\omega) = a[/math] for all [math]\omega[/math], where [math]0 \leq a \leq 1[/math]. Does [math]m(\omega)[/math] have all the properties of a distribution function?