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| rev | Admin | (Created page with "'''Answer: C''' Let <math>\pi</math> be the annual premium, so that <math>\pi \ddot{a}_{50}=A_{50}+0.01 \ddot{a}_{50}+0.19</math> <math>\Rightarrow \pi=\frac{A_{50}+0.19}{\ddot{a}_{50}}+0.01=\frac{0.18931+0.19}{17.0245}+0.01=0.03228</math> Loss at issue: <math>L_{0}=v^{k+1}-(\pi-0.01) \ddot{a}_{\overline{k+1}}\left(1-v^{k+1}\right) / d+0.19</math> <math display="block"> \begin{aligned} \Rightarrow \operatorname{Var}\left[L_{0}\right] & =\left(1+\frac{(\pi-0.01)}{d}\...") | Jan 19'24 at 21:04 | +655 |