Exercise
Nov 20'23
Answer
Solution: A
Since Asset Y provides a cash flow at the same time that the liability is due [math](t=4)[/math], we can apply its 250,000 value to reducing the liability amount from 750,000 to 500,000 . Then, we can establish the following two equations, both using [math]t=4[/math] as the reference point for all cash flows.
[[math]]
500,000=A_X v^{-2}+A_Z v=A_X(0.95)^{-2}+A_Z(0.95)
[[/math]]
Second, taking the derivative (with respect to [math]v[/math] ) of both sides of the first equation, we have:
[[math]]
\begin{aligned}
& 0=-2 A_X v^{-3}+A_Z=-2 A_X(0.95)^{-3}+A_Z \\
& 0=-2 A_X(0.95)^{-2}+A_Z(0.95)
\end{aligned}
[[/math]]
Then, subtracting the second equation from the first equation yields:
[[math]]
\begin{aligned}
& 500,000=3 A_X(0.95)^{-2} \\
& A_X=150,416.67
\end{aligned}
[[/math]]