Exercise


Nov 20'23

Answer

Solution: A

Since Asset Y provides a cash flow at the same time that the liability is due [math](t=4)[/math], we can apply its 250,000 value to reducing the liability amount from 750,000 to 500,000 . Then, we can establish the following two equations, both using [math]t=4[/math] as the reference point for all cash flows.

[[math]] 500,000=A_X v^{-2}+A_Z v=A_X(0.95)^{-2}+A_Z(0.95) [[/math]]

Second, taking the derivative (with respect to [math]v[/math] ) of both sides of the first equation, we have:

[[math]] \begin{aligned} & 0=-2 A_X v^{-3}+A_Z=-2 A_X(0.95)^{-3}+A_Z \\ & 0=-2 A_X(0.95)^{-2}+A_Z(0.95) \end{aligned} [[/math]]

Then, subtracting the second equation from the first equation yields:

[[math]] \begin{aligned} & 500,000=3 A_X(0.95)^{-2} \\ & A_X=150,416.67 \end{aligned} [[/math]]

Copyright 2023 . The Society of Actuaries, Schaumburg, Illinois. Reproduced with permission.

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