Exercise


ABy Admin
Jan 20'24

Answer

Answer: D

[math]{ }_{20} V=0==\gt1000 A_{65}=(P+W) \times \ddot{a}_{65}[/math]

At issue, present value of benefits must equal present value of premium, so:

[math]1000 A_{45}=P \ddot{a}_{45}+W_{20} E_{45} \times \ddot{a}_{65}[/math]

[math]354.77=(P+W)(13.5498) \Rightarrow P+W=26.182674 \Rightarrow P=26.182674-W[/math]

[math]151.61=17.8162 P+W(0.35994)(13.5498)[/math]

[math]151.61=17.8162(26.182674-W)+W(0.35994)(13.5498)[/math]

[math]\Rightarrow W=24.33447[/math]

Copyright 2024. The Society of Actuaries, Schaumburg, Illinois. Reproduced with permission.

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